Modigliani risk-adjusted return is defined as follows: Let D_t be the excess return of the portfolio (i.e., above the
risk-free rate) for some time period t: :D_t\equiv R_{P_t} - R_{F_t} where R_{P_t} is the portfolio return for time period t and R_{F_t} is the
risk-free rate for time period t. Then the
Sharpe ratio S is :S\equiv \frac {\overline{D}} {\sigma_D} where \overline{D} is the
average of all excess returns over some period and \sigma_D is the
standard deviation of those excess returns. And finally: :M^2 \equiv S \times \sigma_B + \overline{R_F} where S is the
Sharpe ratio, \sigma_B is the
standard deviation of the excess returns for some benchmark portfolio (often, the market) against which the portfolio in question is being compared, and \overline{R_F} is the
average risk-free rate for the period in question. For clarity, one can substitute in for S and rearrange: :M^2 \equiv \overline{D} \times \frac {\sigma_B} {\sigma_D} + \overline{R_F}. The original paper also defined a statistic called "RAPA" (presumably, an abbreviation of "risk-adjusted performance alpha"). Consistent with the more common terminology of M^2, this would be :M^2 \alpha \equiv S \times \sigma_B or equivalently, :M^2 \alpha \equiv \overline{D} \times \frac {\sigma_B} {\sigma_D}. Thus, the portfolio's excess return is adjusted based on the portfolio's relative riskiness with respect to that of the benchmark portfolio (i.e., \frac {\sigma_B} {\sigma_D}). So if the portfolio's excess return had twice as much risk as that of the benchmark, it would need to have twice as much excess return in order to have the same level of
risk-adjusted return. The M2 measure is used to characterize how well a portfolio's return rewards an investor for the amount of risk taken, relative to that of some benchmark portfolio and to the
risk-free rate. Thus, an investment that took a great deal more risk than some benchmark portfolio, but only had a small performance advantage, might have lesser risk-adjusted performance than another portfolio that took dramatically less risk relative to the benchmark, but had similar returns. Because it is directly derived from the
Sharpe ratio, any orderings of investments/portfolios using the M2 measure are exactly the same as orderings using the
Sharpe ratio. ==Advantages over the Sharpe ratio and other dimensionless ratios==