Statewise dominance implies
first-order stochastic dominance (FSD), which is defined as: : Random variable A has first-order stochastic dominance over random variable B if for any outcome
x, A gives at least as high a probability of receiving at least
x as does B, and for some
x, A gives a higher probability of receiving at least
x. In notation form, P [A \ge x]\ge P [B \ge x] for all
x. This is written as A \succeq_1 B. Similarly to the case of zeroth-order, A \succ_1 B requires the extra condition: for some
x, P[A \ge x]>P[B \ge x]. In terms of the
cumulative distribution functions, A \succeq_1 B means that F_A(x) \le F_B(x) for all
x. A \succ_1 B requires the extra condition: F_A(x) for some x. If A, B are comparable according to first-order dominance, then \forall x, F_A(x) \le F_B(x) or \forall x, F_A(x) \ge F_B(x). In both cases, we say that "the distributions of A and B do not intersect". When A, B are comparable according to \succeq_1,
Wilcoxon rank-sum test tests for first-order stochastic dominance.
Equivalent definitions Let \rho, \nu be two probability distributions on \R, such that \mathbb E_{X\sim \rho}[|X|], \mathbb E_{X\sim \nu}[|X|] are both finite, then the following conditions are equivalent, thus they may all serve as the definition of first-order (weak) stochastic dominance: • For any u: \R \to \R that is non-decreasing, \mathbb E_{X\sim \rho}[u(X)] \geq \mathbb E_{X\sim \nu}[u(X)] . • F_\rho(t) \leq F_\nu(t), \quad \forall t \in \R. • There exists three random variables X\sim \rho, Y \sim \nu, \delta, such that X = Y + \delta, and \delta \geq 0. For strict first-order stochastic dominance, add a non-equality in the definition, as usual. The first definition states that a gamble \rho first-order stochastically dominates gamble \nu
if and only if every
expected utility maximizer with an increasing utility function prefers gamble \rho over gamble \nu. The third definition is equivalent to the second. The third definition states that we can construct a pair of gambles X, Y with distributions \rho, \nu, such that gamble X always pays at least as much as gamble Y. More concretely, construct first a uniformly distributed Z\sim\mathrm{Uniform}(0, 1), then use the
inverse transform sampling to get X = F_X^{-1}(Z), Y = F_Y^{-1}(Z), then X \geq Y for any Z. This then implies the second definition. The argument can be run backwards to show that the second definition implies the third.
Extended example Consider three gambles over a single toss of a fair six-sided die: : \begin{array}{rcccccc} \text{State (die result)} & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & 6 \\ \hline \text{gamble A wins }\$ & 1 & 1 & 2 & 2 & 2 & 2 \\ \text{gamble B wins }\$ & 1 & 1 & 1 & 2 & 2 & 2 \\ \text{gamble C wins }\$ & 3 & 3 & 3 & 1 & 1 & 1 \\ \hline \end{array} Gamble A statewise dominates gamble B because A gives at least as good a yield in all possible states (outcomes of the die roll) and gives a strictly better yield in one of them (state 3). Since A statewise dominates B, it also first-order dominates B. Gamble C does not statewise dominate B because B gives a better yield in states 4 through 6, but C first-order stochastically dominates B because Pr(B ≥ 1) = Pr(C ≥ 1) = 1, Pr(B ≥ 2) = Pr(C ≥ 2) = 3/6, and Pr(B ≥ 3) = 0 while Pr(C ≥ 3) = 3/6 > Pr(B ≥ 3). Gambles A and C cannot be ordered relative to each other on the basis of first-order stochastic dominance because Pr(A ≥ 2) = 4/6 > Pr(C ≥ 2) = 3/6 while on the other hand Pr(C ≥ 3) = 3/6 > Pr(A ≥ 3) = 0. In general, although when one gamble first-order stochastically dominates a second gamble, the
expected value of the payoff under the first will be greater than the expected value of the payoff under the second, the converse is not true: one cannot order lotteries with regard to stochastic dominance simply by comparing the means of their probability distributions. For instance, in the above example C has a higher mean (2) than does A (5/3), yet C does not first-order dominate A. ==Second-order==