The
prime number theorem (PNT) implies that the number of primes up to x, denoted \pi(x), is roughly x/\text{log}(x), so if we replace
x with 2x then we see the number of primes up to
2x is asymptotically twice the number of primes up to
x (the terms \text{log}(2x) and \text{log}(x) are asymptotically equivalent). Therefore, the number of primes between
n and 2n is roughly n/\text{log}(n) when
n is large, and so in particular there are many more primes in this
interval than are guaranteed by Bertrand's postulate. So Bertrand's postulate is weaker than the PNT; but it makes precise claims about what happens for small values of
n. The similar and still unsolved
Legendre's conjecture asks whether for every
n \ge 1, there is a prime
p such that n^2 . Again we expect that there will be not just one but many primes between n^2 and (n+1)^2, but in this case the PNT does not help: the number of primes up to x^2 is asymptotic to x^2/\text{log}(x^2) while the number of primes up to (x+1)^2 is asymptotic to (x+1)^2/\text{log}((x+1)^2), which is asymptotic to the estimate on primes up to x^2. So, unlike the previous case of
x and 2x, we do not get a proof of Legendre's conjecture for large
n. Error estimates on the PNT are not (indeed, cannot be) sufficient to prove the existence of even one prime in this interval. In greater detail, the PNT allows to estimate the boundaries for all \varepsilon > 0, there exists an
S such that for x > S: : (1-\varepsilon)\frac {x^2}{2\log x} \; : (1-\varepsilon)\frac {(x+1)^2}{2\log (x+1)} \; The ratio between the lower bound \pi((x+1)^2) and the upper bound of \pi(x^2) is : \frac {(x+1)^2}{x^2}\cdot \frac {\log x}{\log (x+1)} \cdot \frac {1-\varepsilon}{1+\varepsilon} \; . Note that since \frac {(x+1)^2}{x^2} \rightarrow 1 when x \rightarrow \infty, \frac {\log x}{\log (x+1)} for all
x > 0, and \frac {1-\varepsilon}{1+\varepsilon} for a fixed
\varepsilon, there exists an
R such that the ratio above is less than 1 for all
x > R. Thus, it does not ensure that there exists a prime between
\pi(x^2) and
\pi((x+1)^2). More generally, these simple bounds are not enough to prove that there exists a prime between
\pi(x^n) and
\pi((x+1)^n) for any positive integer
n > 1. == Generalizations ==